UPESMET Sample Papers, Free Practice Papers and Previous Year Question Papers

The University of Petroleum and Energy Studies Management Entrance Test, commonly abbreviated UPESMET is a nationwide management entrance examination which is conducted by the UPES University, (University of Petroleum and Energy Studies) Dehradun. The UPESMET exam is held for a duration of 2 hours The candidates must answer 140 questions which are divided into four sections. For each correct answer, one mark is provided while for each wrong answer, no mark is deducted. The UPESMET results are released in the candidate’s portal after the examination.

UPESMET Exam Pattern

UPESMET exam is held for a duration of 120 minutes. The exam is held in the CBT or Compuer-based Test format.

Every year, thousands of candidates register and appear for the UPESMET examination. Some of the other important aspects of the examination are given below:

UPESMET Exam Syllabus

The UPESMET is conducted annually by the UPES (University of Petroleum and Energy Studies) university for the purpose of admitting candidates to their Master of Business Administration (MBA) degree programmes. To secure a good score in the UPESMET exam, the candidates must understand the complete syllabus of the UPESMET exam.

General English:RC (Reading Comprehension), Analyzing Statements, Fill in the blanks, Jumbled words and Antonyms, Odd one out, Para Jumbles, Prepositions, Summarizing

Quantitative: Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency: Data interpretation (graph), Data sufficiency, Profit and loss, Ratio, Arithmetic Progression, Average, Boat and Stream, Percentage, Simple interest, Time and distance, Time and work, Combinatorics, Probability, Trigonometry

General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business Scenario: CA (Current Affairs), Business, Geography, Political Science, Static GK, Current Affairs, Tagline

Analytical and Logical Reasoning: Sitting Arrangement, Statement and conclusions, Decision Making, Analytical Reasoning, Argument Evaluation, Classification, Comparison, Ordering and Ranking, Direction, Distance and direction, Family-Based Puzzles

UPESMET Section-wise Important Topics

After the careful analysis of the official sample paper released by the UPES university for the UPESMET examination, it was found that most questions were asked from the following topics:

Official UPESMET Sample Paper

It is always beneficial that the candidates download and study the official UPESMET preparation materials to enhance their UPESMET preparation. Given below are the links to the official UPESMET sample papers released by the UPES university.

Why are UPESMET sample papers necessary?

There are numerous benefits studying and practicing the UPESMET sample papers. Let us discuss a few

Familiarity with Exam Format: Sample papers help you understand the structure and format of the UPESMET exam, making you more comfortable on test day.

Time Management: Practicing with sample papers allows you to understand how much time you need to allocate to each section, improving your time management skills.

Identify Weak Areas: Regular practice with sample papers helps you identify your weak areas so you can focus more on them during your preparation.

Build Confidence: The more you practice, the more confident you become in your abilities to tackle the actual exam.

Practice Real Questions: Sample papers often include questions that are similar to or have appeared in past exams, giving you a realistic idea of what to expect.

Improve Speed and Accuracy: With regular practice, you can enhance your speed and accuracy in answering questions, which is crucial for scoring well.

UPESMET Sample Paper by Careers360

The link to the sample paper designed by Careers360 is given below. The candidates are strongly advised to download and study the UPESMET 2024 sample paper ebook to enhance their preparation.

Now let us discuss a few important questions from each topic of the UPESMET examination.

Directions (Questions 1-3): Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.

Risk mitigation in business involves identifying potential risks and developing strategies to minimize their impact. This process is crucial for maintaining stability and ensuring long-term success. Common risk mitigation strategies include diversifying investments, implementing robust security measures, maintaining strong relationships with stakeholders, and having contingency plans in place. By proactively addressing risks, businesses can avoid significant financial losses and operational disruptions.

1. What are the benefits of implementing risk mitigation strategies in a business?

A. Reduced financial losses

B. Improved stakeholder relationships

C. Increased operational efficiency

A. A only

B. B only

C. A & B

D. A, B & C

Correct option: Option D. A, B & C

Explanation: Implementing risk mitigation strategies can reduce financial losses, improve relationships with stakeholders, and increase operational efficiency.

2. It is implied in the passage that:

A. Diversifying investments is a key risk mitigation strategy.

B. Contingency plans are not necessary for all businesses.

C. Risk mitigation helps in maintaining business stability.

A. A only

B. C only

C. A & C

D. A, B & C

Correct option: Option C. A & C

Explanation: Diversifying investments and maintaining business stability are both implied as key aspects of risk mitigation in the passage.

3. Which of the following statements is not a possible inference in the context of the passage?

A. Risk mitigation strategies always guarantee business success.

B. Maintaining strong relationships with stakeholders can help mitigate risks.

C. Proactively addressing risks can prevent operational disruptions.

A. A only

B. B only

C. A & C

D. B & C

Correct option: Option A. A only

Explanation: The statement that risk mitigation strategies always guarantee business success is not a possible inference from the passage. Risk mitigation helps reduce risks but does not guarantee success.

4. Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them.

A. DUAI

B. BGLIHRNOMIA

C. METIX

D. OTAYTO

Correct option: Option C. METIX

Here the actual words are: A. AUDI
B. LAMBORGHINI
C. TIMEX
D. TOYOTA

Now all except TIMEX are car brands. So Option C is right.

5. Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them.

1. AANDCA

2. AIAS

3. TAAIUSRLA

4. RUEOEP

Correct option: Option A. AANDCA

A. AANDCA - CANADA
B. AIAS - ASIA
C. TAAIUSRLA - AUSTRALIA
D. RUEOEP - EUROPE

Now, identifying the odd word among them. All options represent continents or regions except for A. CANADA, which is a country. Therefore, Option A (AANDCA) is the odd word.

6. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. When this extra water vapour condenses into precipitation, it results in heavier rain — or, if it's cold enough, heavier snow.
B. The atmosphere can store an additional 4% of water vapour for every additional 1°F of warming.
C. More water evaporates from soils, plants, lakes and seas as the atmosphere warms.
D. One of the most obvious indications of climate change is heavier rainfall.

A. CBDA

B. DCBA

C. ACDB

D. BCAD

Correct option: Option B. DCBA

The second option is the correct option.

Explanation: The paragraph begins with a direct statement about heavier rainfall being a clear indication of climate change (sentence D). Sentence C follows by introducing the process of increased evaporation due to a warmer atmosphere. Sentence B then provides a specific impact on the atmosphere's ability to store water vapour. Lastly, sentence A logically concludes by explaining the consequences of the extra water vapour, resulting in heavier rainfall or snowfall.

7. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

While physical movement

P. activities may not require physical

Q. is important for children, all learning

R. the part of teachers and students

S. movement and facial expressions on

A. PRQS

B. RSPQ

C. QSRP

D. QPSR

Correct option: Option D. QPSR

The correct choice is the fourth option.

The sentence starts with a general statement about physical movement's importance (Q), then contrasts by mentioning that not all learning requires it (P), specifies what might not be required (S), and ends by indicating who is involved (R).

To understand the logic for arranging the sentence parts "While physical movement (QPSR)", let's examine each part:

Q. is important for children, all learning××: This segment seems to continue from a statement about something that is important for children. It suggests a contrast or a condition, which is typical for a sentence beginning with "While".

P. activities may not require physical××: This part likely follows a mention of what is important for children, suggesting a contrast or exception.

S. movement and facial expressions on××: This fragment seems incomplete and needs a preceding part to make sense. It's probably talking about the type of movement or expression.

R. the part of teachers and students××: This part clearly refers to the subjects (teachers and students) and should follow a mention of an action or a characteristic related to them.

So, the logic of arrangement:

- Start with "While" (an introductory clause setting the stage for a contrast).

- Follow with Q, as it mentions what is important for children and sets up the contrast.

- Then P, as it provides the contrasting point (what activities may or may not require).

- S comes next, as it elaborates on the type of physical activity being discussed.

- Finally, R, as it specifies who is involved in these activities (teachers and students).

Therefore, the arrangement QPSR forms a coherent sentence: "While physical movement is important for children, all learning activities may not require physical movement and facial expressions on the part of teachers and students."

8. The ratio of expenditure to savings of a woman is 5 : 1. If her income and expenditure are increased by 10% and 20%, respectively, then find the percentage change in her savings.

A. 55%

B. 60%

C. 50%

D. 40%

Correct option: Option D. 40%

Given: The ratio of expenditure to savings of a woman is 5 : 1. Initial expenditure = 500 units Initial savings = 100 units

Initial income = 500 + 100 = 600 units

After her income and expenditure are increased by 10% and 20%, respectively: New income = 600 × (110 / 100) = 660 units New expenditure = 500 × (120 / 100) = 600 units

New savings = 660 - 600 = 60 units

Therefore, the percentage change in her savings = [(100 - 60) / 100] × 100 = 40%

Hence, the correct answer is 40%.

9. The price of a scooter increases successively by 10%, 5%, and 15%. What is the total percentage increase in the price of the scooter?

A. 32 33/40%

B. 34 21/40%

C. 30 11/40%

D. 36 31/40%

Correct option: Option A. 32 33/40%

Let the initial price of the scooter be 100.

After successive increments of 10%, 5%, and 15%, the price becomes:

= 100 × (110/100) × (105/100) × (115/100)

= 100 × (11/10) × (21/20) × (23/20)

= (11 × 21 × 23) / 40

= 5313 / 40

Difference = Price after increment - initial price

= (5313 / 40) - 100

= (5313 - 4000) / 40

= 1313 / 40

Therefore, percentage increase

= (Difference / Initial price) × 100

= (1313 / 40) / 100

= 32 33/40%

Hence, the correct answer is 32 33/40%.

10. What is the ratio of the mean proportional between 1.6 and 3.6 and the third proportional of 5 and 8?

A. 2 : 15

B. 5 : 16

C. 3 : 16

D. 4 : 15

Correct option: Option C. 3 : 16

Mean proportion of 1.6 and 3.6: = √(ab) = √(1.6 × 3.6) = 2.4

Now, the third proportion of 5 and 8: = b^2 / a = 82 / 5 = 64 / 5

Therefore, the ratio of mean proportion to third proportion: = 2.4 : (64 / 5) = 2.4 × 5 : 64 = 12 : 64 = 3 : 16

Hence, the correct answer is 3 : 16.

11. If 450 men can finish the construction of an apartment in 20 days, then how many men are needed to complete the same work in 30 days?

A. 150

B. 300

C. 400

D. 250

Correct option: Option B. 300

We know that M1 × D1 = M2 × D2, where M1 and M2 are men and D1 and D2 are days.

450 men can finish the construction of an apartment in 20 days. Here, M1 = 450, D1 = 20, and D2 = 30.

So, 450 × 20 = M2 × 30.

Therefore, M2 = 450 × 20 / 30.

Hence, M2 = 300.

Therefore, the correct answer is 300.

12. A man rows a boat a certain distance downstream in 9 hours, while it takes 18 hours to row the same distance upstream. How many hours will it take him to row three-fifths of the same distance in still water?

A. 9.5

B. 7.2

C. 10

D. 12

Correct option: Option B. 7.2

Given: Time taken for upstream = 18 hours Time taken for downstream = 9 hours Distance = 18 km

Downstream speed = Distance / Time = 18 / 9 = 2 km/hr Upstream speed = Distance / Time = 18 / 18 = 1 km/hr

Speed of the boat in still water = (1 + 2) / 2 = 3 / 2 = 1.5 km/hr

Now, calculate 3/5th of 18 km: 3/5 × 18 = 54/5 km

Time taken to row 54/5 km with a speed of 1.5 km/hr: (54/5) / 1.5 = 54/5 × (1/1.5) = 54/7.5 = 7.2 hours

Therefore, the correct answer is 7.2 hours.

13. The number of ways five alphabets can be chosen from the alphabets of the word MATHEMATICS, where the chosen alphabets are not necessarily distinct, is equal to:

A. 175

B. 181

C. 177

D. 179

Correct option: Option D. 179

We need to find the number of ways to select 5 letters from these, considering different cases:

1. All distinct: We need to choose 5 distinct letters out of 8. This can be calculated as: 8C5 = 56

2. 2 same, 3 different: Choose 1 letter from the 3 pairs (AA, MM, TT) and choose 3 different letters from the remaining 7 letters. This can be calculated as: 3C1 × 7C3 = 3 × 35 = 105

3. 2 same of the 1st kind, 2 same of the 2nd kind, and 1 different: Choose 2 pairs from the 3 pairs (AA, MM, TT) and choose 1 different letter from the remaining 6 letters. This can be calculated as: 3C2 × 6C1 = 3 × 6 = 18

Total number of ways: 56 + 105 + 18 = 179

Therefore, the total number of ways to select 5 letters is 179.

14. The simple interest on a certain sum for 3 years at 14% p.a. is INR 4,200 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 5 years at the same rate. Find the sum.

A. INR 16,000

B. INR 12,000

C. INR 10,000

D. INR 15,000

Correct option: Option D. INR 15,000

Let P be the principal sum.

Rate, R = 14%

Time, n1 = 3 years

Time, n2 = 5 years

Simple interest, SI = (P × n × R) / 100

According to the question,

(P × 5 × 14) / 100 - (P × 3 × 14) / 100 = 4200

Simplifying,

(P × 2 × 14) / 100 = 4200

28P / 100 = 4200

28P = 420000

P = 420000 / 28 = 15000

Hence, the correct answer is INR 15,000.

15. Directions: A migrating bird flies 40 km north, then turns east and flies 50 km, then turns north and flies 110 km, and turns to its left and flies 50 km. Where is it now with reference to its starting position?

A. 150 km south

B. 150 km north

C. 70 km north

D. 70 km south

Correct option: Option B. 150 km north

As per the given information, the movement of the bird will look as follows –

The distance between the migrating bird's starting point and end point = 40 + 110 = 150 km

The distance between the migrating bird's starting and end points is 150 km and the migrating bird is in the north direction with respect to its starting position. Hence, the second option is correct.

16. Directions: The weights of 4 boxes are 90, 30, 20, and 50 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes, and in combination a box can be used only once?

A. 190

B. 170

C. 100

D. 150

Correct option: Option D. 150

Given:
The weights of 4 boxes are 90, 30, 20, and 50 kilograms.

The total weight of all possible combinations of boxes is as follows –
90 + 30 = 120; 90 + 20 = 110; 90 + 50 = 140; 30 + 20 = 50;
30 + 50 = 80; 20 + 50 = 70; 90 + 30 + 20 = 140;
90 + 30 + 50 = 170; 90 + 20 + 50 = 160; 30 + 20 + 50 = 100;
90 + 30 + 20 + 50 = 190

Therefore, there is no total weight of 150 kilograms in any combination. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

17. Directions: The weights of the four boxes are 90, 30, 40, and 60 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes, and in combination, a box can be used only once?

A. 200

B. 220

C. 180

D. 130

Correct option: Option A. 200

Given:
The weights of the four boxes are 90, 30, 40, and 60 kilograms.

The total weight of all possible combinations of boxes is as follows –
90 + 30 = 120; 90 + 40 = 130; 90 + 60 = 150; 30 + 40 = 70;
30 + 60 = 90; 40 + 60 = 100; 90 + 30 + 40 = 160;
90 + 30 + 60 = 180; 90 + 40 + 60 = 190; 30 + 40 + 60 = 130;
90 + 30 + 40 + 60 = 220

Therefore, there is no total weight of 200 kilograms in any combination. Hence, the first option is correct.

18. Directions: The weights of the 4 boxes are 90, 40, 80, and 50 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes, and in a combination a box can be used only once?

A. 200

B. 260

C. 180

D. 170

Correct option: Option D. 170

Given:
The weights of 4 boxes are 90, 40, 80, and 50 kilograms.

The total weight of all possible combinations of boxes is as follows –
90 + 40 = 130; 90 + 80 = 170; 90 + 50 = 140; 40 + 80 = 120;
40 + 50 = 90; 80 + 50 = 130; 90 + 40 + 80 = 210;
90 + 40 + 50 = 180; 90 + 80 + 50 = 220; 40 + 80 + 50 = 170;
40 + 80 + 50 + 90 = 260

Therefore, there is no total weight of 200 kilograms in any combination. Hence, the first option is correct.

19. Directions: The weights of 4 boxes are 30, 20, 60 and 70 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination a box can be used only once?

A. 180

B. 170

C. 120

D. 150

Correct option: Option B. 170

Given:
The weights of 4 boxes are 30, 20, 60 and 70 kilograms.

The total weight of all possible combinations of boxes is as follows –
30 + 20 = 50; 30 + 60 = 90; 30 + 70 = 100; 20 + 60 = 80;
20 + 70 = 90; 60 + 70 = 130; 30 + 20 + 60 = 110;
30 + 60 + 70 = 160; 30 + 20 + 70 = 120; 20 + 60 + 70 = 150;
20 + 60 + 70 + 30 = 180

Therefore, there is no total weight of 170 kilograms in any combination. Hence, the second option is correct.

20. Directions: There are five girls R, S, T, P, and Q sitting in a row facing north. T is sitting exactly in the middle of the row. Q is sitting to the immediate right and immediate left of P and T, respectively. S is not sitting at the extreme end. Who is sitting third to the left of R?

A. P

B. Q

C. S

D. T

Correct option: Option B. Q

Given:

(i) T is sitting exactly in the middle of the row.

(ii) Q is sitting to the immediate right and immediate left of P and T, respectively. S is not sitting at the extreme end.

From the final seating arrangement, Q is sitting third to the left of R. Hence, the second option is correct.

21. Directions: P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R. If R is facing west, then Q is facing which direction?

A. North

B. South

C. East

D. West

Correct option:Option A. North

Firstly, we will draw the diagram as per the given instructions –

So, Q is facing in the North direction. Hence, the first option is correct.

22. What is the Net National Product?

A. The product of gross national product and depreciation is net national product.

B. The sum of gross national product and income of foreigners is net national product.

C. Net National product is equal to gross national product.

D. The difference between gross national product and depreciation is net national product.

Correct option: Option D. The difference between gross national product and depreciation is net national product.

The correct answer is The difference between gross national product and depreciation is net national product.

The term "net national product" refers to gross national product, which is the total market value, less depreciation, of all finished goods and services generated by a nation's or other polity's factors of production over a specific period. As a result, NNP is equal to national income, or the total amount of money that can be spent on goods and services in the economy. The net national product is the amount that remains after depreciation, which subtracts it from the gross national product.

23. Which of the following becomes the first district in India to cover 100% of households under the AB PMJAY- SEHAT scheme?

Correct option: Option A. Samba - Jammu and Kashmir

A. Samba - Jammu and Kashmir

B. Pratapgarh – Rajasthan

C. Kheda – Gujarat

D. Mansa – Punjab

The correct answer is Samba - Jammu and Kashmir.

The Samba district of the Jammu division in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir has become the first district in India to cover 100% of households under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PMJAY)-SEHAT initiative.

24. According to traditional Indian seasons, which of the following seasons falls in the month of November-December?

A. Autumn

B. Winter

C. Hemant

D. Spring

The correct answer is: Option C. Hemant

The correct answer is Hemant.

Hemant is the season that occurs between autumn and winter, typically in November and December, according to traditional Indian seasons. Many major festivals, such as Dussehra and Diwali, take place during this season in India.

25. Where is the Jawaharlal Nehru Port located?

A. Bhubaneswar

B. Kolkata

C. Chennai

D. Navi Mumbai

Correct option: Option D. Navi Mumbai

The correct answer is Navi Mumbai.

Jawaharlal Nehru Port is the largest container port in India and is built on the Arabian Sea in Navi Mumbai. It was earlier known as the Nhava Sheva Port, and now it is known as the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust, which is abbreviated as JNPT. Twelve major ports are working in India.

26. When did the First Five-Year Plan end?

A. March 1956

B. January 1956

C. December 1955

D. February 1956

Correct option: Option A. March 1956

The correct answer is March 1956.

The period of the First Five-Year Plan was from 1951 to 1956. The plan was based on the Harrod Domar Model and emphasised increasing savings. The five-year plans were formulated, implemented and regulated by a body known as the Planning Commission. Joseph Stalin was the first person to implement the five-year plan in the Soviet Union in the year 1928.

27. What is the full form of CRR?

A. Cash Reserve Ratio

B. Credit Reserve Ratio

C. Currency Reserve Ratio

D. None of the above

Correct option: Option A. Cash Reserve Ratio

The correct answer is (a) Cash Reserve Ratio

The full form of CRR is Cash Reserve Ratio. CRR is a monetary policy tool used by central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), to regulate the amount of cash that commercial banks must maintain as reserves with the central bank. It is expressed as a percentage of the total demand and time liabilities (deposits) of the banks.

By adjusting the CRR, the central bank can control the liquidity in the banking system. When the CRR is increased, banks have to keep a higher portion of their deposits with the central bank, which reduces the funds available for lending. Conversely, when the CRR is decreased, banks have more funds available for lending, promoting liquidity in the economy.

28. Which of the following is the largest freshwater lake in India?

A. Chilika Lake

B. Wular Lake

C. Pulicat Lake

D. Vembanad Lake

Correct option: Option B. Wular Lake

Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India, located in Jammu and Kashmir

UPESMET Online Preparation Materials

There is no dearth of preparation materials in Careers360. If a candidate requires additional assistance on various management entrance examinations, they can download and study the following articles.